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Post by florentia on Mar 10, 2021 18:14:50 GMT
Hey everyone, I need some F3 help!
So as I understand it there are two WACC formulas: WACC =keg[ve/(ve+vd]+kd(1-t)[vd/ve+vd]
WACC=Keu[1-(vdt/ve+vd]
I'm not really sure when I should use each one. I had an aptitude one question referring to "long dated bonds with a coupon rate of 5%". I used 5% as Kd for the first formula, but it's wrong and I don't understand why.
Hoping someone can help?
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Post by damonwilks on Mar 11, 2021 12:49:39 GMT
It depends on the details you're given. One is applicable to cost equity in geared firms, the others is cost equity in ungeared firms. If you keep that in mind you should be able to identify which formula to use.
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Post by florentia on Mar 16, 2021 12:41:12 GMT
Thanks, that seems like a really straight forward way of remembering it!
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